CCRN-Adult Guaranteed Success, Latest CCRN-Adult Questions
CCRN-Adult Guaranteed Success, Latest CCRN-Adult Questions
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Tags: CCRN-Adult Guaranteed Success, Latest CCRN-Adult Questions, CCRN-Adult Test Duration, CCRN-Adult Testdump, CCRN-Adult Relevant Answers
ITPassLeader is a reliable platform to provide candidates with effective study braindumps that have been praised by all users. For find a better job, so many candidate study hard to prepare the CCRN (Adult) - Direct Care Eligibility Pathway, it is not an easy thing for most people to pass the CCRN-Adult Exam, therefore, our website can provide you with efficient and convenience learning platform, so that you can obtain as many certificates as possible in the shortest time.
AACN CCRN-Adult Exam Syllabus Topics:
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Latest CCRN-Adult Questions - CCRN-Adult Test Duration
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AACN CCRN (Adult) - Direct Care Eligibility Pathway Sample Questions (Q499-Q504):
NEW QUESTION # 499
Which of the following has the greatest influence on the risk of aspiration when using enteral feeding in a critically ill patient?
- A. Nasal vs oral tube placement
- B. The size of the feeding tube
- C. The position of the patient
- D. Gastrostomy tube placement vs other placements
Answer: C
Explanation:
The position of the patient is one of the primary factors influencing aspiration risk. Studies have confirmed that aspiration and pneumonia are significantly more likely when patients are supine with the head of the bed elevated at less than 30 degrees. While the semirecumbent position with head of the bed elevations of >/= 30 degrees cannot guarantee absolute protection against aspiration, it is a method that is inexpensive and relatively easy to accomplish and monitor. Strict use of semirecumbent position (head of the bed at 30-45 degrees) is the most consistent and potent means to reduce the likelihood of aspiration.
The size of a feeding tube and the placement of the tube, whether it be oral, nasal, or via a gastrostomy, has not been shown to alter the risk of aspiration.
NEW QUESTION # 500
A caloric irrigation test of the oculovestibular reflex is performed on a patient who is comatose following a hypoxic brain injury. When cold water is introduced into the left ear, nystagmus occurs with slow deviation of the eyes toward the left, followed by faster eye deviation to the right. This pattern is indicative of a
- A. persistent vegetative state.
- B. brain-stem infarction.
- C. normal response.
- D. third cranial nerve palsy.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The caloric irrigation test, also known as the oculovestibular reflex test, is used to assess brainstem function in patients, especially those who are comatose. In this test, cold water is introduced into the ear canal, which should induce a predictable response if the brainstem is intact. The normal response to cold water irrigation is nystagmus with slow deviation of the eyes toward the side of the cold water (in this case, the left) and a fast phase of eye movement (nystagmus) away from the side of the cold water (to the right). This indicates that the brainstem pathways are functioning properly. References: =
* American Association of Critical-Care Nurses (AACN). (2024). CCRN Exam Handbook. Retrieved from AACN CCRN Exam Handbook
* Adult CCRN/CCRN-E/CCRN-K Certification Review Course Online. AACN
NEW QUESTION # 501
Evidence-based strategies to prevent CLABSIs (central line-associated bloodstream infections) include replacing transparent central line dressings whenever damp, soiled, or loose, or at least every:
- A. 10 days
- B. 96 hours
- C. 72 hours
- D. 7 days
Answer: D
Explanation:
Several practices have been evaluated in an attempt to reduce the incidence of CLABSI. One evidence- based strategy for preventing central line infections is replacing central line dressings whenever damp, loose, or soiled, or at a frequency of every 7 days for transparent, chlorhexadine impregnated dressings.
Gauze dressings should be replaced if the patient is diaphoretic or if the site is bleeding or oozing, or at least every 2 days. The catheter site should be assessed every shift for redness, tenderness, pain, or exudate.
NEW QUESTION # 502
Which of the following is NOT considered a loop diuretic?
- A. Torsemide (Demadex)
- B. Furosemide (Lasix)
- C. Bumetanide (Bumex)
- D. Chlorothiazide (Diuril)
Answer: D
Explanation:
Diuril is not considered a loop diuretic. It is a thiazide diuretic and works by enhancing the excretion of sodium, chloride, and water by inhibiting the transport of sodium across the renal tubular epithelium in the cortical diluting segment of the nephron. It also increases the excretion of potassium and bicarbonate. Thiazide diuretics are used in the management of edema and hypertension.
Loop diuretics (Lasix, Bumex, and Demadex) are diuretics that act at the ascending loop of Henle in the kidney; they inhibit active transport of chloride and possibly sodium, resulting in enhanced excretion of sodium, chloride, potassium, hydrogen, magnesium, ammonium, and bicarbonate. Loop diuretics are usually used in the management of edema associated with HF (Heart Failure) or oliguric renal failure, as well as the management of hypertension.
NEW QUESTION # 503
The critical care nurse understands that the primary etiology of hyperphosphatemia in all patients, including the critically ill, is:
- A. bone tumors
- B. renal failure
- C. Addison disease
- D. excessive intake of vitamin D
Answer: B
Explanation:
Renal failure is the most common cause of excessive phosphate levels in all patients, including the critically ill. The regulation of phosphate in the body is performed by the kidneys. Other causes of hyperphosphatemia include hypoparathyroidism, excessive intake of alkali or vitamin D, Addison disease, and with bone tumors or fractures. It is often associated with hypocalcemia and presents most commonly with muscle cramps, joint pain, and seizures.
NEW QUESTION # 504
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